The Missouri Compromise of 1820 did not have lasting effects. Which is the best explanation for this? (1 point)
A. The compromise relied on popular sovereignty, and public opinion was overwhelmingly opposed to it.
B. The compromise only applied to the lands of the Louisiana Purchase, and a later law effectively overturned it.
C. The compromise limited the number of states that could be admitted per year, so it could not be enforced.
D. The compromise only applied to the lands of the Mexican Cession, so it quickly became irrelevant.