Which of the following best explains why the Mexican government allowed Anglo-American settlers to bring enslaved people to Texas?(1 point) Responses The Mexican government wanted Anglo-Americans to buy land in Texas. The Mexican government wanted Anglo-Americans to buy land in Texas. The Mexican government was pressured by the U.S. government. The Mexican government was pressured by the U.S. government. Slavery was legal in Mexico. Slavery was legal in Mexico. The Mexican government had no position on slavery.
The Mexican government had no position on slavery.
The Mexican government allowed Anglo-American settlers to bring enslaved people to Texas because slavery was legal in Mexico.
To determine which of the given options best explains why the Mexican government allowed Anglo-American settlers to bring enslaved people to Texas, we can break down each option and evaluate its plausibility:
1. The Mexican government wanted Anglo-Americans to buy land in Texas.
2. The Mexican government was pressured by the U.S. government.
3. Slavery was legal in Mexico.
4. The Mexican government had no position on slavery.
Options 1 and 2 appear to be duplicates, so we can eliminate one of them. Now, let's analyze the remaining options:
1. The Mexican government wanted Anglo-Americans to buy land in Texas.
This explanation suggests that the Mexican government allowed enslaved people because they wanted to encourage Anglo-Americans to purchase land in Texas. While the desire to attract settlers could be a factor, it doesn't specifically address the allowance of enslaved people.
2. The Mexican government was pressured by the U.S. government.
This explanation proposes that the Mexican government was influenced or coerced by the U.S. government to allow Anglo-Americans to bring enslaved people to Texas. Pressure from a more powerful nation may have played a role, but it is necessary to consider other factors as well.
3. Slavery was legal in Mexico.
This explanation states that the Mexican government allowed enslaved people because slavery was legal in Mexico. If this is true, it would directly address why the government allowed such practices.
4. The Mexican government had no position on slavery.
This explanation suggests that the Mexican government simply had no opinion on slavery and thereby permitted it. While this may be a possibility, it is important to examine the historical context and other factors that might have influenced their position.
Considering the options, the most plausible explanation is option 3: Slavery was legal in Mexico. This aligns with the historical fact that at the time, Mexico had laws and policies permitting slavery.