is it possible to have (0, 0) be both the x and y intercepts? I have the equation y = -3x. I know the slope is -3. If I plug in 0 for x, y becomes 0, so the y-intercept would be (0, 0). If I plug in 0 for y, x also becomes 0, so the x-intercept would also be (0, 0). I graphed the line and it went through 0, 0, but I'm not sure if I have ever seen it where both the x and y intercepts were (0, 0)?

Question

is it possible to have (0, 0) be both the x and y intercepts?  I have the equation y = -3x.  I know the slope is -3. If I plug in 0 for x, y becomes 0, so the y-intercept would be (0, 0). If I plug in 0 for y, x also becomes 0, so the x-intercept would also be (0, 0).  I graphed the line and it went through 0, 0, but I'm not sure if I have ever seen it where both the x and y intercepts were (0, 0)?

mathhelper · Answer

At (0,0) doesn't the line cut the x-axis? at (0,0) doesn't the line cut the y-axis? so , yes, (0,0) would be both the x and the y intercept