Is this theorem valid in your opinion? Use sound mathematical reasoning. Give examples to support your reasoning. Discuss this.
I don't know if it works for negative one.:(
I dont think so..please confirm
Thank you
"For any polynomial function, if the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(x) is zero, then one(1) is a root. If the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(-x) is zero then negative one(-1) is a root".