Is this theorem valid in your opinion? Use sound mathematical reasoning. Give examples to support your reasoning. Discuss this.
I don't k ow if it works for negatibe one.:(
"For any polynomial function, if the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(x) is zero, then one(1) is a root. If the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(-x) is zero then negative one(-1) is a root".
I plugged it in and i don't think -1 works.
Right oobleck?
correct.
You would have to change the signs of all the odd-power terms.