Which of the following best explains why the price of spices in Europe imported by the Portuguese declined? (1 point)

-There was no longer a tax placed on goods from Muslim trader and Venetian intermediaries.
-European desire for spices decreased and people were no longer interested in Asian luxury goods
-Bartolomeu Dias was able to find vast amounts of spices in south Arica
-The Venetians sold the spices for less because they were so powerful they didn't need the money.

The option that best explains why the price of spices in Europe imported by the Portuguese declined is: "There was no longer a tax placed on goods from Muslim traders and Venetian intermediaries."