A widow's peak is a V-shaped area of the hairline in the center of the forehead. The allele for having a widow's peak is dominant to the allele for not having a widow's peak.If two parents do not have widow's peaks, what is the probability that their child will have a widow's peak?
Possible Answers:
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%
bot please help
The parents in this scenario would both have the genotype of "Ww" (where "W" represents the dominant allele for having a widow's peak and "w" represents the recessive allele for not having a widow's peak).
When these two parents have a child, they each have a 50% chance of passing on either the "W" or "w" allele.
Therefore, the Punnett square for this cross would look like:
| | W | w |
|---|---|---|
| w | Ww | ww |
| w | Ww | ww |
As you can see, there is a 50% chance that the child inherits the "Ww" genotype and therefore has a widow's peak.
Therefore, the answer is B. 50%.
To determine the probability that their child will have a widow's peak, we need to use Punnett square analysis.
Since the allele for having a widow's peak is dominant (W) to the allele for not having a widow's peak (w), we can represent the parents' genotypes as ww.
When we cross two individuals who have the same genotype (ww x ww), all of their offspring will also have the same genotype ww.
Since both parents lack a widow's peak (ww), there is no possibility of them passing on the dominant allele (W) to their child. Therefore, the probability that their child will have a widow's peak is 0%.
The correct answer is D. 0%.