The family of functions given by π¦ = πΎπβ4 π₯β is a solution to the differential equation
ππ¦
ππ₯ = 4π¦
π₯2. (You do not need to show this.) Find the member of the family of functions that
passes through the point (1, 2
all those italics and you still managed to botch the input. y = ke^(-4/x)
you want y(1) = 2, so
ke^(-4) = 2
k = 2e^4
giving
y = 2e^4 e^(-4/x)
just FYI,
dy/dx = ke^(-4/x) * 4/x^2 = 4y/x^2