Use DE←→ and FG←→ to answer the question.
DE←→ contains the points D(1,−2) and E(3,4).
FG←→ contains the points F(−1,2) and G(4,0).
Is DE←→ perpendicular to FG←→? Why or why not?
Yes, because the product of the slopes is 1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not −1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not 1.
Yes, because the product of the slopes is −1.
So, you guessed twice. That's not the same as solving the problem.
DE has slope (4+2)/(3-1) = 4
FG has slope (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
since 4 * -2/5 ≠ the lines are not perpendicular ... (B)
its b
I tried A but it was wrong . Both the slopes are different not the same
b. AND THATS FINAL
To determine if DE←→ is perpendicular to FG←→, we need to compare the slopes of the two lines.
First, let's find the slope of DE←→. The slope is calculated using the formula (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁), where (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) are the coordinates of two points on the line.
For DE←→ with points D(1,-2) and E(3,4), the slope is:
m₁ = (4 - (-2)) / (3 - 1) = 6 / 2 = 3
Next, let's find the slope of FG←→. Using the same formula with points F(-1,2) and G(4,0), the slope is:
m₂ = (0 - 2) / (4 - (-1)) = -2 / 5
The product of the slopes is m₁ * m₂ = 3 * (-2/5) = (-6/5).
Since the product of the slopes is not 1 or -1, we can conclude that DE←→ is not perpendicular to FG←→. Therefore, the correct answer is: No, because the product of the slopes is not 1.
Is it D?
slope of ED = (4+2)/(3-1) = 3
slope of FG = (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
For 2 lines to be perpendicular the product of their slopes must be -1
So what is your conclusion ?