posted by OdIzzle .
what kind of fallacy is this statementLetter to the editor: “Andrea Keene’s selective morality is once again showing through in her July 15 letter. This time she expresses her abhorrence of abortion. But how we see only what we choose to see! I wonder if any of the anti-abortionists have considered the widespread use of fertility drugs as the moral equivalent of abortion, and, if they have, why they haven’t come out against them, too. The use of these drugs frequently results in multiple births, which leads to the death of one of the infants, often after an agonizing struggle for survival. According to the rules of the pro-lifers, isn’t this murder?”
Fertility drugs lead to more life. How does it lead "to the death of one of the infants"? Are they purposely sacrificed, or do they die because — like some multiple births caused by fertility methods — they are premature? If there is not intent to do harm, can you classify it as murder?
Since this is not my area of expertise, I searched Google under the key words "fertility drugs complications" to get these possible sources:
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In the future, you can find the information you desire more quickly, if you use appropriate key words to do your own search. Also see http://hanlib.sou.edu/searchtools/.
I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.
These pages on what the different fallacies are should help, too:
Geepers. I agree with DAG. By the same logic, anyone who has a history of miscarriages, and has intimate relations could then be charged with murder? Give it a break.