Hello. I will be grateful for some grammar help.
1)Which tense is correct in the context:
"they will get the documents ready by Friday" or "they will have got the documents ready by Friday"? Are both structures possible?
2)Is it possible to use "after" in the structure: "They have achieved much after the war / after the war ended" or is it only "since"?
3)Does the sentence seem natural: "She had been working hard for six hours, after which she decided to have some rest"? Do you think it's possible to use "after what" instead of "after which"?
4)Do you think it's possible (and natural) to use two present perfect tenses in the sentence: "they have been protesting for several days when he has finally accepted their demands"? I guess it's supposed to be in the past: "had been protesting; accepted", but is the present possible?
5)A similar question. "He has said he has been waiting for hours" (are two present perfect tenses OK here? I think it sounds better than the previous sentence.)
Thank you very much for your time and help.
1) Both are correct, except the second should be "will have gotten."
2) They achieved much after the war.
or
They have achieved much since the war.
3) is awkward. Better: After she had been working hard for six hours, she decided to take some rest.
4) Your first sentence is incorrect.
. . . had been protesting . . . when he finally accepted . . .
5) That sentence is fine. :-)
Hello! I'm happy to help with your grammar questions. Let's go through them one by one:
1) Both structures are grammatically correct, but they convey slightly different meanings.
- "They will get the documents ready by Friday" implies that they will start preparing the documents and complete the task by Friday.
- "They will have got the documents ready by Friday" implies that the documents will be ready by Friday, suggesting that the preparation may already be in progress.
2) In the structure "They have achieved much after the war / after the war ended," both "after" and "since" can be used. However, they convey slightly different meanings:
- "After the war" suggests that the achievements occurred at some point in time following the end of the war.
- "Since the war ended" suggests that the achievements occurred continuously from the time the war ended until the present.
3) The sentence "She had been working hard for six hours, after which she decided to have some rest" is grammatically correct and natural. However, using "after what" instead of "after which" would not sound natural in this context. "After what" is usually used in questions to ask for specific information, while "after which" is used to provide a sequential order or refer back to something previously mentioned.
4) In the sentence "They have been protesting for several days when he has finally accepted their demands," it would be more natural to use the past tense instead of the present perfect tense. So it would be better to say, "They had been protesting for several days when he finally accepted their demands." This indicates that the protesting happened before the acceptance of demands.
5) The sentence "He has said he has been waiting for hours" is grammatically correct and natural. Using two present perfect tenses in this case is acceptable because the first "has said" refers to a past action, and the second "has been waiting" describes a continuous action that started in the past and is still relevant in the present.
I hope these explanations help! If you have any more questions, feel free to ask.