If a guy speaks spanish AND english.. is it mutually inclusive or exclusive?
Probability sense.
In probability sense, if a person speaks both Spanish and English, it is considered mutually inclusive. Let's break it down:
To determine mutual exclusivity or inclusivity, we need to know the probability of speaking Spanish (S) and the probability of speaking English (E), as well as the probability of speaking both (S and E).
Let's assume we have the following probabilities:
P(S) = probability of speaking Spanish
P(E) = probability of speaking English
P(S and E) = probability of speaking both Spanish and English
If P(S and E) = 0, then speaking Spanish and English would be mutually exclusive. This means that the person can only speak one language, either Spanish or English, but not both simultaneously.
However, if P(S and E) > 0, then speaking Spanish and English would be mutually inclusive. This means that the person can speak both Spanish and English.
In most cases, when someone is bilingual and can speak both Spanish and English, the probability of speaking both languages would be greater than zero. Therefore, it would be considered mutually inclusive.