I was wondering if:
π₯ = (0,1,0) is in the π¦π§ plane. True or False?
and if
(1,8) is a point on the line: π = (1,5) + π‘ (0,3). True or False?
Thank u :)))
well (1,0,1) is one unit over from the origin on the y-axis, so it must be on y-z plane
so true
b) let t=1,what do you get?