I am confused. Please help

A President can use armed forces overseas
a. at his or her own discretion

b. after a declaration of war has been issued by Congress

c. once Congress has approved the
decision

d. pending approval by Congress within forty-eight hours

I think it's (a) but am not sure because the War Powers Resolution of 1973 states that within 48 hours after committing American forces to combat abroad, the President must report to Congress, detailing the circumstances and scope of his actions. But, doesn't the President have the right to do so at his or her own discretion. Please elaborate. Thanks

http://www.whitehouse.gov/news/releases/2002/10/20021002-2.html
Use Ctrl + F to search for the word authorized. You'll have to click on Next two or three times.

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http://www.google.com/search?q=president+use+armed+forces&rls=com.microsoft:en-us:IE-SearchBox&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&sourceid=ie7&rlz=1I7SUNA

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=)

Yes, you are correct. According to the War Powers Resolution of 1973, the President does have the authority to use armed forces overseas without explicit approval from Congress, but there are certain limitations and requirements.

Under the War Powers Resolution, the President is allowed to introduce armed forces into hostilities or situations where hostilities are imminent without a declaration of war from Congress. However, he or she is required to notify Congress within 48 hours of committing US forces to combat abroad. The President must also provide a detailed report to Congress explaining the circumstances and scope of the military action.

So, while it is true that the President has the discretion to use armed forces overseas initially, there are specific legal requirements in place to ensure congressional oversight and reporting. This means that option (a), "at his or her own discretion," is partially correct but should be qualified with the understanding of the War Powers Resolution.

I hope this explanation clarifies the issue for you.