A woman with a genetic disease marries a man who does not carry the disease. It is not possible for their children to have the disease. The disease must be:
-sex-linked
-recessive
-dominant
-caused by an extra chromosome
I think it is recessive. Thoughts Ms. Sue?
B Recessive! c:
Based on the information provided, it is likely that the disease is recessive. Let me explain why.
A recessive genetic disease is one that requires both copies of a specific gene to have the disease-causing mutation in order for the individual to express the disease. In this case, if the woman with the genetic disease marries a man who does not carry the disease, it means that he does not have a copy of the mutated gene.
If the disease were dominant, it would mean that only one copy of the mutant gene is needed for the individual to express the disease. So, if the disease were dominant, there would be a chance for the children to have the disease because the woman would pass down one copy of the mutant gene to each child. However, since the question states that it is not possible for their children to have the disease, it suggests that the disease is likely not dominant.
Regarding sex-linkage, it refers to genes that are located on the sex chromosomes (usually the X chromosome). However, the question does not provide any information about the inheritance pattern being specifically related to the sex chromosomes. So, we cannot determine if the disease is sex-linked based on the given information.
Lastly, the question does not suggest anything about the disease being caused by an extra chromosome, so we can conclude that it is not relevant to the type of disease in question.
Therefore, based on the given information and reasoning, it is plausible to conclude that the disease is most likely recessive.