posted by Paul .
Yo te puedo pagar manana. (accent on n)
Would the response be
a. Bueno, pagate manana. (accent on a and n)
b. No, pagame ahora mismo. (accent on a)
And can you explain why? Gracias
Since so many students have difficulty with answering questions (I assume that IS what you are doing?), this is what I recommend, and no shortcuts!
1. Look at the Spanish.
2. Give the English of what you see = I can pay you tomorrow.
3. Answer FIRST in English = No, pay me right now.
4. NOW put it into Spanish, and it is choice b.
5. Even better, if you have the time and the inclination is to now look at #4 (the answer) and see if you can come up with the question that got that answer. Then if it's the same as what you first saw, you'll know you are right. Besides, many textbooks ask you to actually DO that, after you learn to ANSWER questions.
Why? Because choice a says: "Fine, pay yourself tomorrow. (te = yourself)
Whereas in b, "me" means me"
If you need further explanation, please ask more questions.
Yes I understand. I kept saying the two options out loud. What I was confused was, I thought choice a meant, "Good, you pay tomorrow." But I'm starting to understand the meaning behind attaching "te" behind pagar.
I had trouble understanding this question.
The object pronouns can come before and after verbs depending on how they are or are not conjugated.
I said it was false because in certain cases like a command, you can attach it to the end of the verb. Basically I thought the question could have been worded a little better