calculus
posted by Kelly .
f'(x) < 0 if x < 1
And apparently this means f is decreasing on (1, 1).
I don't understand this. I know f'(x) < 0 means the function is decreasing. But I don't understand the absolute value. It means I can put 1 or 1 inside, but wouldn't it still be 1 = 1 and not 1 < 1? I don't understand.

calculus 
bobpursley
Consider f(x)=x^2 1
f(x) <0 if abs(x)<1
However, f(x) is not decreasing over that entire range (1 to 1)
So your meaning of the problem statement is not understood 
calculus 
Kelly
Sorry, I don't understand your reply...
This question has a prime after the f by the way. It's f prime, aka the derivative. That's why the function is decreasing.
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