posted by Anonymous .
Is it true that Macbeth only wishes that his wife be cured so that she will cease to sleepwalk and talk in her sleep and that He fears that someone who hears her talking will figure out that he is guilty of the killing of Duncan.
If it is can you please tell me in what area (e.i act, line etc) were I can find proof of this?
Here are a couple of good websites to use when looking for something in one of Shakespeare's plays. In the first one, once you select the play and act/scene, you'll find the entire play, with the original language on the left and modern version on the right.
In this one, you'll find summaries of the different acts/scenes.