# econ

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True of False?
E=exchange rate

Suppose E \$/euros = 3/2 and E \$/pounds = 2, and there is no trade friction, the no arbitrage condition implies
that E pounds/euros = 2

• econ -

False. Think it through.
You have \$/euros = 3/2 which means \$3 = 2E. Also, you have 2E=1L. Ergo, \$3=1L.

• econ -

so the arbitrage condition should be E pounds/euros=3/4. ( i got this by multiplying 1/2 and 3/2 )

Is this correct?

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