Post a New Question

Grammar

posted by .

I need help with the following question:
The law from the 1800s mandated that men could buy alcohol and cigarettes only from a state store.
My question to this is back in the 1800's women were not allowed to by alcohol, so I don't think this is a biased statement, it was the law. Or is it considered biase now a days? I know that I can and [sic] after man or change to people but it would not be the truth. Please help!!!


The statement is not biased as you have written it. It is not talking about gender (men or women) . The statement is saying that those things could only be bought from a state run store, not a privately owned store.

GuruBlue is right.

1. It is not biased because it is referring to what happened in the 1800s. We cannot change what happened.

2. In addition, if it's a quotation, not a word should be changed. Quotations need to be word-for-word accurate!

=)

Respond to this Question

First Name
School Subject
Your Answer

Similar Questions

More Related Questions

Post a New Question