British & American Government Question

posted by .

In comparing the British and American
systems of government,which statement
is true:

A. Britain's government was created
by a single document that is very
similar to the U.S. Constitution.
B. The House of Lords is the most
powerful branch of Britain's
government.
C. There is no high court in Britain
that can declare acts of Parliament
unconstitutional.
D. The Prime Minister in Britain can
veto acts of Parliament.
Can someone help with this question,please?

Since Britain doesn't have a specific written constitution, A must be wrong. D. is also wrong because the prime minister can not veto acts of Parliament. Check these sites to see which is the correct answer.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_the_United_Kingdom

(Broken Link Removed)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High_Court_of_Justice

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_the_United_Kingdom

Check on the relationship between the signing of the Magna Carta and the development of a government in England

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magna_Carta

I think that A would be correct.

I am confused-- please help!

I hate to disagree with GuruBlue, but the Magna Carta, signed in 1215, didn't create Britain's government. It limited some of the king's powers, but the first elected British Parliament wasn't established until 1265. The present British government has grown over many years and has a history of both written and oral precedents.

On the other hand, the U.S. Constitution spells out the exact makeup and functions of our three branches of government.

The correct answer is C. Britain's high court can not declare an act of Parliament unconstitutional.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parliament_of_the_United_Kingdom

how is the english government and English government alike? how was american government influenced?

I think the correct answer would have to be C

A

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