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Let f(x) = (x+1)/(x1). Show that there are no vlue of c such that f(2)f(0) =f'(c)(20). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem? I plugged 2 and 0 into the original problem and got 3 and 1 . Then I found the
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Verify that the function satisfies the three hypotheses of Rolle's Theorem on the given interval. Then find all numbers "c" that satisfy the conclusion of Rolle's Theorem. f(x)=sin4pix , [1/2,1/2] Well according to Rolle's
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Verify that the function satisfies the three hypotheses of Rolle's Theorem on the given interval. Then find all numbers "c" that satisfy the conclusion of Rolle's Theorem. f(x)=sin4pix , [1/2,1/2] Well according to Rolle's
asked by Julia on April 14, 2007