Despite their losses in the war, France and Britain were as firmly in control of their colonies in 1945 as they had been before 1939.
true or false
Your answer? Why?
i have a feeling that its true
You need more than a feeling.
When did most of their colonies gain independence?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Empire
To determine if the statement is true or false, we need to examine the historical context and events surrounding France and Britain's colonies between 1939 and 1945. Here is an explanation of how you can come to a conclusion on your own:
1. Research the situation before 1939: Before 1939, both France and Britain had established vast colonial empires around the world. They had control over territories in Africa, Southeast Asia, the Caribbean, and the Pacific, among others. It is crucial to assess the extent of their dominance and control during this period.
2. Investigate the impact of World War II: World War II took place between 1939 and 1945 and had significant consequences for colonial powers. Both France and Britain were occupied by Axis forces during the war, which limited their ability to maintain control over their colonies. Additionally, the war sparked anti-colonial movements and nationalist aspirations among colonized peoples.
3. Analyze post-war developments: After 1945, many colonies began demanding independence, and anti-colonial movements gained momentum. Both France and Britain faced severe challenges in maintaining control over their colonies as independence movements grew stronger and international pressure mounted for decolonization.
By examining these historical factors, you can draw an informed conclusion on whether the statement, "Despite their losses in the war, France and Britain were as firmly in control of their colonies in 1945 as they had been before 1939," is true or false.