which statement does NOT describe how greek words entered english?
a.they have been formed by combining greek elements.
b.they have come indirectly by way of latin.
c.they have come indirectly by way of german
d.they have been borrowed directly from greek writers.
i choose d???
I don't think Greek had much influence on German.
im sorry i meant to say b lol
B is way off base!
ok so if its not d or b then its eathier a or c correct haha soo i say c lucky guess?>what do u think lmao
To determine the correct answer, let's analyze each statement:
a. "They have been formed by combining Greek elements": This statement is true. Many English words have been formed by combining Greek root words or affixes.
b. "They have come indirectly by way of Latin": This statement is true. Many Greek words entered the English language through Latin, as Latin was the main conduit for borrowing Greek words.
c. "They have come indirectly by way of German": This statement is true. Some Greek words made their way into English through Germanic languages, particularly Old English, during the Anglo-Saxon period.
d. "They have been borrowed directly from Greek writers": This statement is false. While some Greek words have directly entered English through Greek texts, it is relatively uncommon.
Therefore, the correct answer is d. Greek words have mainly entered English through Latin and Germanic languages, rather than being borrowed directly from Greek writers.