1. Can you pass me it?
2. Give him this.
3. I'll make you it.
Whic one is grammatical?
Are all ungrammatical?
Do you have a specail rule for that?
Would you let me know that?
# 2; You is understood. You give him this.
1. Can you pass it to me?
2. Give him this.
3. I'll make it for you.
Indirect objects cannot be used with all verbs. Here are some links that explain it well:
http://www.slu.edu/colleges/AS/languages/classical/latin/tchmat/grammar/g-indob.html
http://www.dailygrammar.com/191to195.shtml
http://englishplus.com/grammar/00000018.htm
Out of the three sentences provided:
1. "Can you pass me it?" - This sentence is grammatically correct.
2. "Give him this." - This sentence is also grammatically correct.
3. "I'll make you it." - This sentence is grammatically incorrect.
When it comes to using pronouns like "it" or "me" with verbs like "pass," "give," or "make," the standard rule is to place the pronoun before the verb. Therefore, sentences 1 and 2 follow this rule and are grammatical.
However, in sentence 3, the order is reversed ("I'll make it you"). This is considered ungrammatical in English. The correct version of sentence 3 would be "I'll make it for you."
So, the answer to your question is that sentences 1 and 2 are grammatical, while sentence 3 is ungrammatical due to the incorrect placement of the pronoun.