can somebody please help me with this question . Is this statement logical?

"Many people have said no one will ever travel to Mars. They're right! After all, we have never done it before

Do you think it's logical and correct to assume that because "we've never done it before" then "no one will ever ..."?

There are two verb tenses there -- past and future. That's part of the problem.

??

is it logical or not i don't get it

Was it "logical" for someone to say that no one would ever fly in 1900? Up until 1903 no one had ever flown a motorized plane.

Was it "logical" for someone to say in 1950 that no one would ever walk on the moon? Up until 1969, no one had ever been to the moon.

Is it logical to say that no one will ever travel to Mars, just because no one has done it before? What do you think?

Determining whether the statement is logical or not requires critical thinking and considering the evidence available. In this case, the statement suggests that because we have never traveled to Mars before, it is logical to assume that no one will ever do so.

However, it is important to recognize that throughout history, there have been numerous instances where human achievements have surpassed what was previously thought possible. The examples of flying and walking on the moon are good illustrations of this.

Therefore, it would not be entirely logical to assume that just because we have not done something in the past, it will never be accomplished in the future. Advancements in technology, scientific knowledge, and human determination can often lead to breakthroughs and achievements that were once only considered science fiction.

To approach this question logically, it would be more accurate to say that traveling to Mars has not yet been achieved, but that does not definitively mean it will never happen. It is more reasonable to leave room for the possibility that future advancements and developments could make it feasible.