hi there, in Act 1 Scene 6, Duncan says"

See, see, our honored hostess!
The love that follows us sometime is our trouble,
Which still we thank as love. Herein I teach you
How you shall bid God 'ild us for your pains,
And thank us for your trouble. "

He groups Lady Macbeth as one of his subject, my question is that, back in the day, would the King have grouped his children as "his subjects"? Since I have changed my essay opinion, I'm trying to convince that Lady Macbeth cannot be Duncan's daughter.

I am not certain. Women were not treated much better than chattel property, and in fact, a adult married daughter would be generally treated as property of another man...after all , he did give her away.

But in reality, personal feelings have to be different than public feelings, so I can't answer your question well. I will see if I can get you some better help.

good luck.

Overall, a king's wife and children were treated like subjects, yes -- because they WERE his subjects. Only he was the king; everyone else was a subject of his.

I think this concept is clearest in King Lear when the king's daughters are told what he will do and nothing they do or say can change his mind. He is the king. End of discussion. (Until later, of course, when his madness becomes terribly obvious.)

Macbeth's relationship with his wife is no different, but he allows her to have more influence on him, I think. And I think he allows this because he is not king in the first place. He was never a strong, determined king such as Hamlet's father or King Lear; he was pretty much made the king by his wife's goading him into specific actions.

So ... yes, a king's wife and children were subjects, just like all the other nobles and commoners -- but in this particular story, Lady Macbeth holds a particular kind of sway with her husband.

I should say --

Macbeth's formal relationship with his wife is no different...

Thanks so much for the in-depth explanations bobpursley & Writeacher! It helped me a lot.

In order to determine how kings in Shakespeare's time referred to their children as subjects, we can consult historical sources and analyze the context of the play. While it is true that kings held considerable power and authority over their subjects, including their own children, the specific manner in which they referred to their offspring may have differed.

To research this topic further, you can start by examining primary sources that document the lives and reigns of kings during the Elizabethan and Jacobean eras, such as historical records, diaries, or official correspondences. These sources may provide insight into the language and terminology used by kings when referring to their children.

You can also analyze the play itself, paying attention to the dynamics and relationships between characters. Consider the interactions between King Duncan and Lady Macbeth before and after he refers to her as his "subject." Are there any indications of a paternal relationship or blood tie? Do other characters in the play refer to Lady Macbeth as the king's daughter? Such evidence will help support your argument that Lady Macbeth is not Duncan's daughter.

Remember to cite specific examples from the play and historical sources to strengthen your argument. Utilizing scholarly interpretations and analysis of the play can also provide valuable insight into the relationship dynamics between characters.