In the last example, we saw that the conditional distribution of 𝑋, which was a uniform over a smaller range (and in some sense, less uncertain), had a smaller variance, i.e., 𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘‹βˆ£π΄)≀𝖡𝖺𝗋(𝑋). Here is an example where this is not true. Let π‘Œ be uniform on {0,1,2} and let 𝐡 be the event that π‘Œ belongs to {0,2}.

a) What is the variance of π‘Œ?

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ)=

(a) 2/3

(b) 1

Well, well, well! It seems we have a variance question here. Let's see if we can clown our way through it.

Now, we have a uniform distribution π‘Œ that takes values from {0, 1, 2}. To find the variance of π‘Œ, we need to know a couple of things.

First, we need to find the mean of π‘Œ. Since π‘Œ is uniform, with equal probability for each value, the mean is simply the average of the possible values. In this case, the mean is (0 + 1 + 2)/3 = 1.

Next, to find the variance, we need to calculate the squared difference between each value and the mean, and then take the average of those squared differences. The formula for variance is a bit of a clown fest, but bear with me.

For each value 𝑦, we calculate (𝑦 - π‘šπ‘’π‘Žπ‘›)^2. Let's do this for each value in π‘Œ:

(0 - 1)^2 = 1
(1 - 1)^2 = 0
(2 - 1)^2 = 1

To find the variance, we take the average of these squared differences. Summing them up, we get 1 + 0 + 1 = 2. Dividing by 3 (the number of values), we get 2/3.

So, the variance of π‘Œ is 𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 2/3. And that's the end of our clown show!

To calculate the variance of π‘Œ, we first need to determine the mean of π‘Œ.

Since π‘Œ is uniformly distributed on {0, 1, 2}, each value has an equal probability of occurring. Therefore, the mean of π‘Œ is given by:

𝐸(π‘Œ) = (0 + 1 + 2)/3 = 3/3 = 1

Next, we can calculate the variance using the formula:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 𝐸[(π‘Œ - 𝐸(π‘Œ))^2]

Substituting the mean value into the formula, we get:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 𝐸[(π‘Œ - 1)^2]

Now, we'll compute the variance by considering each value of π‘Œ and its respective probability:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = [(0 - 1)^2 * 1/3] + [(1 - 1)^2 * 1/3] + [(2 - 1)^2 * 1/3]
= [(-1)^2 * 1/3] + [0^2 * 1/3] + [1^2 * 1/3]
= [1/3] + [0] + [1/3]
= 2/3

Therefore, the variance of π‘Œ is 2/3.

To calculate the variance of π‘Œ, we need to know the values of π‘Œ and their corresponding probabilities. In this case, π‘Œ is uniform on the set {0, 1, 2}, which means that each value in the set is equally likely to occur.

To find the variance, we can use the formula:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 𝑬[(π‘Œ - 𝑬[π‘Œ])^2]

where 𝑬[π‘Œ] is the expected value of π‘Œ.

Since π‘Œ is a uniform random variable, the expected value 𝑬[π‘Œ] can be calculated as the average of the possible values:

𝑬[π‘Œ] = (0 + 1 + 2) / 3 = 1

Now, let's calculate the variance:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 𝑬[(π‘Œ - 𝑬[π‘Œ])^2]

Since π‘Œ can take on values 0, 1, and 2, we'll substitute these values in the formula:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = (0 - 1)^2 * P(π‘Œ = 0) + (1 - 1)^2 * P(π‘Œ = 1) + (2 - 1)^2 * P(π‘Œ = 2)

Since π‘Œ is uniform, each value has an equal probability of occurring, which is 1/3. Substituting these values, we get:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = (0 - 1)^2 * (1/3) + (1 - 1)^2 * (1/3) + (2 - 1)^2 * (1/3)

Simplifying the equation:

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = (1)^2 * (1/3) + (0)^2 * (1/3) + (1)^2 * (1/3)

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 1/3 + 0 + 1/3

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ) = 2/3

Therefore, the variance of π‘Œ is 2/3.