Which would be true for the verb gustar?
A. It is formed like a irregular verbs where there's a spelling change throughout
B. It is form like all other verbs
C. Is this the same and only the subject changes
D. It is formed in a backwards manner where the thing that is liked is actually the subject
I think it's either A or D but I'm not sure. Please help!!
It's not A
me gusta
is not like
yo estoy
The correct answer is D. It is formed in a backwards manner where the thing that is liked is actually the subject.
The verb "gustar" is unique in terms of its construction compared to other verbs in Spanish. While most verbs follow a subject-verb-object (SVO) word order, "gustar" uses an indirect object pronoun to indicate the person or thing that is pleased. The indirect object pronoun is accompanied by the preposition "a."
To form sentences with "gustar," you need to think of it as "to be pleasing to." The thing that is liked becomes the subject of the sentence, and the person who likes it is expressed as an indirect object.
For example:
- Me gusta el libro. (The book is pleasing to me. / I like the book.)
- Nos gusta el cine. (The movies are pleasing to us. / We like the movies.)
- Te gustan las flores. (The flowers are pleasing to you. / You like the flowers.)
In these examples, "el libro" (the book), "el cine" (the movies), and "las flores" (the flowers) are the subjects of the sentences. The pronouns "me," "nos," and "te" indicate the indirect object pronouns and show who is being pleased by the subject.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. It is formed in a backwards manner where the thing that is liked is actually the subject.