Thank you for your help.
posted by rfvv yesterday at 5:26pm.
1. This park is the best place to ride a bike.
2. This park is the best place in which we can ride a bike.
3. This park is the best place in order that we can ride a bike.
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Does #1 mean #2 or #3?
Does 'to ride a bike' modify 'place'?
English - Reed yesterday at 5:54pm
"to ride" is the verb. It modifies nothing.
1 and 2 mean the same. 3 doesn't really make sense. We may know what is meant, but the words "in order that we can" are really meaningless.
English - Reed yesterday at 5:59pm
I am too shorthand in the above. The predicate in the sentence, as you know, is "is". "To ride a bike" does modify place. "ride a bike" can be taken as the object of the preposition "to", a noun phrase describing an activity. "to ride" is also a verb. It does get confusing.
English - Writeacher yesterday at 6:06pm
"To ride a bike" is an infinitive phrase.
It's serving as an adjective in sentence 1, describing "place."
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Thank you for your help.
Then, you mean that the following are the same.
Right?
1. This park is the best place to ride a bike.
2. This park is the best place in which we can ride a bike.
2-1. This park is the best place in which to ride a bike.
Yes, 1, 2, and 2-1 all mean about the same thing.
=)
Yes, you are correct. Sentence 1 and sentences 2-1 are the same in meaning. They both convey that the park mentioned is the best location for riding a bike. In both sentences, the phrase "to ride a bike" functions adjectivally, describing the noun "place." The only difference between sentence 1 and sentences 2-1 is the use of the preposition "in."
Sentence 1 uses the preposition "to" before the verb "ride," indicating the purpose or function of the place. Sentence 2-1, on the other hand, uses the preposition "in" before the relative pronoun "which," indicating the location where the bike riding takes place. Both structures are grammatically correct and convey the same meaning.