In what way are usufruct rights similar to John Locke's concept of private property?

A. In order to establish a right to private property one must mix one's labor with property held in common

B. usufruct rights are in no way similar to Locke's concept of private property

C. one's claim to appropriate land held in common is only justifiable if enough is left undisturbed for others' use

D. the notion of private property is founded on the more fundamental notion that one owns oneself

E. the historic idea of the commons is no longer workable in a global commercialized society

We'll be glad to check your answer.

http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/Usufructuary+Rights

http://www.sparknotes.com/philosophy/johnlocke/themes.html

Is it C?

I agree with C.

To determine the correct answer, let's first understand the concept of usufruct rights and John Locke's concept of private property.

Usufruct rights refer to the right to use and enjoy someone else's property or land for a certain period of time, without actually owning it. This means that individuals can utilize the property and derive benefits from it, but they do not own it outright. For example, a farmer may have usufruct rights to farm on someone else's land.

On the other hand, John Locke's concept of private property is based on the idea that individuals can acquire ownership of property when they mix their labor with it. According to Locke, individuals have the right to private property because they expended their own labor to improve or cultivate common resources.

Now, let's analyze each answer choice:

A. In order to establish a right to private property one must mix one's labor with property held in common: This statement aligns with John Locke's concept of private property. According to Locke, individuals acquire private property by mixing their labor with previously unowned resources.

B.Usufruct rights are in no way similar to Locke's concept of private property: This answer choice contradicts the question, which asks for a similarity between usufruct rights and Locke's concept of private property.

C. One's claim to appropriate land held in common is only justifiable if enough is left undisturbed for others' use: This statement recognizes the idea that to claim property, enough must be left for others to benefit from. It somewhat aligns with Locke's theory, as he argued that individuals acquire property without causing waste or leaving enough for others to use.

D. The notion of private property is founded on the more fundamental notion that one owns oneself: While this statement represents a philosophical argument, it does not directly relate to the comparison between usufruct rights and Locke's concept of private property.

E. The historic idea of the commons is no longer workable in a global commercialized society: This statement implies that the concept of common property is no longer practical in a modern society. It does not address the similarity between usufruct rights and Locke's concept of private property.

Based on the analysis, the most suitable answer is A. In order to establish a right to private property one must mix one's labor with property held in common. This statement aligns with both usufruct rights and Locke's theory that individuals acquire actual ownership of property through labor mixing.