Which of the following equivalences is true?

x^2 ≥ 0 ⇔ (x+1)^2 ≥ 1

x^2 ≥ 0 ⇔ x^2+1 ≥ 1

x > 0 ⇔ x^2 > 0

x^2 > 0 ⇔ x^2+1 ≥ 1

x ≥ 0 ⇔ x^2 ≥ 0

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  1. Looks like all of them are true.

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  2. Yes, this is what I thought!! Im so confused unless this is a trick question.

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