Hello my problem is the next one:
g is a function between the interval (a,b)and "p" is a fixed point in (a,b) that`s mean that g(p)=p. If g can be derivated in that interval and /g(x)/<1 to all the interval. Demonstrate using the Mean value theorem that there is ONLY one Fixed POINT in (a,b).
Your typo does not help, but the problem is discussed here:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/217026/show-that-f-has-at-most-one-fixed-point
remember that google is your friend.