limit of (x*(y-1)^2*cosx)/(x^2+2(y-1)^2) as (x,y)->(0,1).

By evaluating along different paths this limit often goes to 0. This does not necessarily imply that it exists. So how would i prove that it exists. Can someone please show me how i can prove using delta - epsilon proof.

Thanks in advance.

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asked by Jim

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