Thank you for your help. One more question about the verb send goes as follows.
1. He sent me a book. [active]
2. I was sent a book by him.[passive]
3. A book was sent (to) me by him.[passive]
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#3 is grammatical. It has no problem.
What about #2? Is it grammatical? In a grammar book here, it is correct. In another grammar book here, it is incorrect. Which one is right?
2 is correct as it's written.
3 is correct as long as you use "to" -- that word is not optional in that sentence.
To determine whether sentence #2 is grammatical, we need to analyze its structure and usage.
In sentence #2, "I was sent a book by him," the verb "sent" is in the passive voice. The passive voice is formed by using a form of the auxiliary verb "be" (in this case, "was") followed by the past participle of the main verb ("sent"). The general structure for passive voice sentences is "subject + auxiliary verb + past participle + main verb."
In this case, the subject is "I," the auxiliary verb is "was," and the past participle is "sent." The object of the action, which is what is being sent, is "a book." "By him" indicates who performed the action.
Sentence #2 is grammatically correct, and it follows the structure of a passive voice sentence. The subject (I) is receiving the action of being sent a book, and the passive voice emphasizes the recipient of the action rather than the performer.
Regarding the discrepancy between grammar books, it's possible that different grammar books have different guidelines or preferences. Grammar rules can sometimes vary, and there may be different accepted variations or usages. It is always a good idea to consider multiple sources to get a comprehensive understanding of grammar rules and usages.
In this case, both sentence #2 and sentence #3 are grammatically correct and convey the same meaning. The choice between them may depend on personal style, context, or emphasis.