In 1939, British politician Winston Churchill uttered these words: "Between shame and war, we have chosen shame, and we will get war." To what was Churchill referring?
Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler at Munich
Hitler's annexation of Austria (the Anschluss)
the Czech leaders' refusal to accept a peace deal
the U.S. refusal to help Britain early in World War II
is it d pls help me
Nope!
Only one of these answers refer to something Britain might be ashamed of.
You're very welcome.
Churchill's statement is referring to Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler at Munich. To confirm this, we can break down the options:
Option A: Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler at Munich
This option aligns with Churchill's statement because it suggests that Britain chose "shame" by accepting Hitler's demands and avoided war temporarily but ultimately ended up with war.
Option B: Hitler's annexation of Austria (the Anschluss)
Although this event was a significant step in Hitler's expansionist ambitions, it was not directly related to the context of Churchill's statement. Therefore, it is not the correct option.
Option C: The Czech leaders' refusal to accept a peace deal
While the Czech leaders' refusal to accept a peace deal led to Germany's conquest of Czechoslovakia, it does not connect to Churchill's words as mentioned in the question. So, it is not the correct option.
Option D: The U.S. refusal to help Britain early in World War II
While the United States' involvement in World War II was crucial, it is not directly related to Churchill's statement in 1939. Therefore, it is not the correct option.
Based on the analysis, the correct answer is A: Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler at Munich.