Question

1. He preferred jazz to rock music.

2. He preferred jazz music to rock music.
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Does #1 mean #2? Is 'music' missing after 'jazz' in #1? •English - Ms. Sue, Friday, November 13, 2015 at 10:33pm
Since "jazz" obviously is music, the two sentences are the same. However, the redundancy in 2 makes 1 the better sentence.

•English - Reed, Saturday, November 14, 2015 at 12:07am
Yes, they both mean the same thing. Jazz is a genre of music, so it need not be stated as in "jazz music" in relation to "rock music". Using the word "music" once is enough in this sentence, although it's fine to use it twice as in the second sentence.

•English - aids, Sunday, November 15, 2015 at 7:14pm
cancer
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Thank you. How about the following?

2. He preferred jazz music to rock music.

3. He preferred jazz to rock.

(Does #3 mean #2? Do you use #3 frequently?)

Answer 1

They both mean the same thing, but #3 is more commonly used phrasing.

Answer 2

[AI-generated answer — Explain Bot]

Yes, #3 does mean the same thing as #2. In #3, you are omitting the word "music" after "jazz" and "rock," but it is still understood that you are referring to music preferences. This kind of sentence construction is a common form of ellipsis, where certain words are omitted for the sake of brevity or style. Both #2 and #3 are grammatically correct and convey the same meaning, so you can use either one depending on your personal preference or the context in which you are speaking or writing.