1. The man left a strong impression on me.
2. The man left a strong impression for me.
3. The man left me a strong impression.
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Are they all grammatical and do they have the same meaning? What is the difference between #1 and #2?•English - Reed, Monday, February 1, 2016 at 4:34am
They are all grammatical, but #1 is the way we would say it. The other two could mean he left the impression of his foot in the sand or the impression of his head in a pillow.
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Thank you for your help.
1. The man left a strong impression on me.
2. The man left a strong impression for me.
3. The man left me a strong impression.
4. The man left a strong impression to me.
(What about #4? Can we use 'to' instead of #1? Are #1 and #4 the same in meaning?)
#1 is fine.
Don't use #2 or #3 or #4.
1. The man left a strong impression on me.
This sentence is grammatically correct and commonly used. It means that the man's actions or qualities had a significant impact on the person speaking.
2. The man left a strong impression for me.
This sentence is grammatically correct, but it has a slightly different meaning than sentence #1. In this case, "for me" suggests that the man intended to leave a strong impression specifically for the person speaking.
3. The man left me a strong impression.
This sentence is also grammatically correct, but the word order is a little less common. It means the same as sentence #1, but placing "me" before "strong impression" emphasizes the speaker as the receiver of the impression.
4. The man left a strong impression to me.
This sentence is grammatically incorrect. Instead of using "to," we use "on" to indicate the person being affected by the impression. So, sentence #4 is not equivalent to sentence #1 in terms of meaning.
To summarize, sentences #1, #2, and #3 are all grammatically correct and convey a similar meaning, with slight differences in emphasis. Sentence #4 is grammatically incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning.