In humans the allele for curly hair and the allele for straight hair show incomplete dominance. If two people with wavy hair have offspring, what percentage of their offspring would you expect to have wavy hair?

A.) 100%
B.) 75%
C.) 50%
D.) 25%

Would it be 50%?!

i need help too

To determine the percentage of offspring that would have wavy hair, we need to understand the concept of incomplete dominance. In this case, both parents have wavy hair, which means they each have one allele for curly hair and one allele for straight hair.

When two individuals with wavy hair reproduce, there are three possible genotypes for their offspring: curly (CC), wavy (CS), and straight (SS). The curly and straight alleles are both dominant to the wavy allele, but in the case of incomplete dominance, neither allele completely dominates the other.

If we represent the curly allele as "C" and the straight allele as "S", the possible genotypes for the offspring are:

1. Curly hair (CC) - when both parents pass their curly allele to the child.
2. Wavy hair (CS) - when one parent passes their curly allele (C) and the other parent passes their straight allele (S).
3. Straight hair (SS) - when both parents pass their straight allele to the child.

Since there are two genotypes that result in wavy hair (CC and CS) out of the three possible genotypes, we can expect 2 out of 3, or approximately 66.7% of their offspring to have wavy hair.

Given the percentage options provided, none of them exactly match the expected percentage. However, if we have to select the closest option, we would select C.) 50%, even though it is slightly underestimated.

No, it would not be 50%. In cases of incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes. In this case, since wavy hair is the heterozygous phenotype, the offspring of two people with wavy hair would also have a 100% chance of having wavy hair.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.) 100%.