posted by Gwen
In humans, having dimples is a dominant trait. If one parent has dimples and is homosygous for the trait, what is the probability any of his or her offspring will NOT have dimples?
A. 100 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 0 percent
Is the answer D?
Thank You can you help me with my other 2 questions?
If a parent is homozygous for a dominant trait, than that trait will trump anything the other parent has. There is a 100% chance the child will have dimples, and a 0% chance the child won't. D is correct.
In humans, having more than five fingers or toes is dominant over having exactly five finger or toes. Which of the following situations would most likely result in exactly half of a couple's offspring having six digits and half of them having five?
A.Both parents are homozygous for the recessive trait
B. Both parents are heterozygous
C. One parent is heterozygous while the other is homozygous for the recessive tratit.
D. One parent is homozygous for the recessive trait while the other is homozygous for the dominant trait.
Is the answer a?
I don't agree with A.
Oh well ok so is the answer C?
Whole Test :
IHateSchoolButGetStraightAs is correct.
why are you cheating?
Why did you come to this site if you didn't need help?
LISTEN TO IHateSchoolButGetStrightAs HES RIGHT THANK YOU!
IHateSchoolButGetStraightAs Is right!!!!
If the first child of a couple was without dimples, a recessive trait, what is the chance that the second child will be born without dimples?
D) Cannot be determined from the phenotype of the child
Ihateschoolbutigetstraighta's Is correct for Cca or connections academy kids
Don't cheat. This website is here so people can check answers, not so they can get them without doing anything.