1. Now I can see more of her.
2. Now I can see her more.
(Are both grammatical? Are both the same in meaning?)
Both are grammatically correct, but have slightly different meanings. The first one implies that you can see more of her body, while the second one means that you can see her, that person, more.
I disagree somewhat. I can't say that Anonymous is wrong, but I think both sentences can mean that "I" can see "her" more often.
Both sentences are grammatically correct, but they have slightly different meanings.
1. "Now I can see more of her."This sentence means that the speaker's visibility of the person has increased. They may have had a limited view before, but now they can see a larger or clearer portion of the person.
To answer questions like these, it's helpful to understand the basic grammar rules and sentence structures. In this case, both "more" and "her" are adjectives.
2. "Now I can see her more." This sentence means that the frequency or intensity of the speaker's ability to see the person has increased. It implies that the person was already visible to some extent, but now the speaker is able to see them more often or in greater detail.
To answer this type of question, it's important to understand the different sentence structures and how they affect the meaning of a sentence. It's also important to consider the context and the intended message conveyed by the speaker. This may involve analyzing the parts of speech, such as adjectives or adverbs. In this case, "more" is an adverb modifying the verb "see."
Overall, while both sentences are grammatically correct, they convey slightly different meanings. It's important to consider the context and the specific intention of the speaker in order to determine the most appropriate usage.