One white marble, two blue marbles, and three red marbles were in a bag. One marble was drawn from the bag and then put back. then another marble was drawn. What is the probability that a white marble was drawn both times? Is the answer 1/36? 1/6 * 1/6

Well, let's see. If you have one white marble, two blue marbles, and three red marbles, the total number of marbles in the bag is six. Since you're putting the marble back after each draw, the total number of marbles remains the same for both draws.

So for the first draw, the probability of picking a white marble is 1 out of 6. And for the second draw, the probability of picking another white marble is also 1 out of 6.

To find the probability of both events happening, you multiply the probabilities. So, 1/6 multiplied by 1/6 equals 1/36.

Therefore, your answer of 1/36 is correct! Good job!

To determine the probability of drawing a white marble twice, we need to multiply the individual probabilities.

First, let's calculate the probability of drawing a white marble the first time, which is 1/6 since there is only one white marble out of a total of six marbles.

Since the marble is put back into the bag before drawing again, the probability remains the same for the second draw. Therefore, the probability of drawing a white marble the second time is also 1/6.

To calculate the probability of both events occurring, we multiply the two probabilities: (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

So, the correct answer is indeed 1/36.

To find the probability of drawing a white marble both times, let's break it down step by step.

First, let's consider the probability of drawing a white marble on the first draw. Out of the total number of marbles (6 in this case), there is only 1 white marble. So the probability of drawing a white marble on the first draw is 1/6.

Now, since the marble is put back into the bag after the first draw, the total number of marbles remains the same for the second draw (6 marbles). Therefore, the probability of drawing a white marble on the second draw is also 1/6.

To find the probability of both events happening consecutively (drawing a white marble on the first and second draws), you multiply the individual probabilities:

P(White on 1st draw) * P(White on 2nd draw) = (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

So, you are correct. The probability of drawing a white marble both times is indeed 1/36.

yes, you are correct