1.y=f(x) 2.x=f(y)
Is the second equation an inverse of the first equation or is it no a function?
first off, equations have no inverses. They are just equations.
if y = f(x) and x = f(y), then
f^-1(y) = x = f(y)
so f is its own inverse.
Is the second equation an inverse of the first equation or is it no a function?
if y = f(x) and x = f(y), then
f^-1(y) = x = f(y)
so f is its own inverse.