PreCal
posted by kenny .
1.y=f(x) 2.x=f(y)
Is the second equation an inverse of the first equation or is it no a function?

first off, equations have no inverses. They are just equations.
if y = f(x) and x = f(y), then
f^1(y) = x = f(y)
so f is its own inverse.
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