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1.y=f(x) 2.x=f(y)
Is the second equation an inverse of the first equation or is it no a function?

  • Pre-Cal -

    first off, equations have no inverses. They are just equations.

    if y = f(x) and x = f(y), then
    f^-1(y) = x = f(y)
    so f is its own inverse.

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