Algebra (please help)
posted by Christian .
Determine whether the following statement makes sense or does not make sense, and explain your reasoning (modified from true/false format of text):
If f(x) = 3x, then f^1(x) = 1/3x
A) This makes sense because the inverse would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x).
B) This does not make sense because although we would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x), the x would appear in the numerator not the denominator.
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