posted by lindsey .
Can someone please tell me if this paragraph makes any sense at all? I feel like I contradict myself, as I do not understand the subject very well. Thank you.
"Since neither of the parents in the pedigree has the genetic disorder (as indicated by their non-darkened shapes, which represent individuals that are unaffected by the disorder), they must both be recessive for the specific trait. This means that both genes are the recessive gene for the trait. Therefore, the genotype of both parents is heterozygous (Rr and Rr—dominant gene R and recessive gene r), and the trait itself is recessive, since neither parent has the disorder. If the disorder were dominant, then one of the parents would have to carry it. Since this is not the case, however, we may conclude that both parents are heterozygous carriers, and that the trait itself is recessive. Both parents are also carriers of the disorder, meaning that they are heterozygous for the inherited disorder but do not show symptoms of the disorder. The only offspring that is affected by the genetic disorder is offspring number 3, as indicated by her darkened shape. Her genotype is homozygous recessive (rr), meaning that she has the same two alleles for the gene, since she is a carrier of two of the recessive genes of that particular trait. The other offspring do not have darkened shapes, and therefore we may conclude that they are not affected by the specific genetic disorder, like offspring number three is."
It looks like 3 copies of the same thing.