posted by Franco .
I forgot to include the following statements. I really hope you can have a look at them, too.
1) Macbeth was most likely written in 1606, early in the reign of James I, who had been James VI of Scotland before he succeeded to the English throne in 1603.
2) It is the story of a Scotch nobleman, related to King Duncan of Scotland, tempted into murdering the king to gain the crown for himself. In committing the terrible deed he is aided by his wife, Lady Macbeth.
3) Before the crime both had been highly respected members of the aristocracy. Macbeth had been perhaps the most important defender of his nation against a combined rebellion and invasion.
4) Lady Macbeth, we learn in the course of the play, had been the able and efficient wife for such a man.
5)Thus, both are honoured and respected by all. But they wish even more: the crown, which will bring, they believe, the highest worldly honour available to them and complete dominion over their land.
6) For these, Macbeth says, he is willing to give up the eternal life promised by Godly things to all honourable and righteous men after death.
7) And so Macbeth, despite an inner conflict with the better part of himself, commits the murder. In so doing, in preferring worldly to godly things, he confuses good and evil – fair and foul, as the play calls them. 8) In effect, both he and his wife give up their souls to gain the world. They find, however, that not only do they lose their souls but they also lose the world.
9) Lady Macbeth ends in mental breakdown and suicide. Macbeth becomes a murderous tyrant feared and hated by all, and is finally haunted as an animal in the fields.
Most of what you've been posting have been in the "OK" category. Please pick the 4 or 5 you are truly questioning.