posted by Anna
I had asked a question earlier and bob pursley nicely answered it but I do have a question concerning it still- perhaps someone could clarify it-
f(x) = logx is a logarthmic function. Bob Pursley said it could be because the base is implied but my question is the way it is written is exactly the way I wrotr it here-doesn't it need parentheses or something to be correct?
I read it as the logarithm of x.
If you read it that way also, it is a logarithmic equation.
Very few mathematicians get overly concerned with notation, however, I have known many high school teachers make a big deal of Log(x) and other notation. I still remember when one thousand was written 1--- ; nowadays, since placeholders were invented, 1000 is the norm. But it still represents the same value. 1K ; or 1E3 are still a thousand also.
Analyze your teacher's psyche on this.
Thank you-I understand what you're saying-I really appreciate the help