Questions LLC
Login
or
Sign Up
Ask a New Question
Questions
Math
why is anything to the zero power equal to 1?
1 answer
Because 1 = a^x/a^x = a^(x-x) = a^0,
no matter what a or x is.
You can
ask a new question
or
answer this question
.
Related Questions
Which power would get a president greater legislative power than the office currently has would it be power of a line item, veto
Which of these is correct?(1 point) Responses 4043=0 the fraction with numerator 4 to the 0 power and denominator 4 cubed is
Which of these equations is correct?(1 point) Responses (5−3)6=1518 open paren 5 to the negative 3 power close paren to the
Solve the equation or formula for the indicated variable.
S=3r4t , for t (1 point) Responses t=S3−r t is equal to cap s over 3
What is the Quotient Rule of Integer Exponents?(1 point)
Responses xaxb=xa−b the fraction with numerator x to the A th power
Which function has the most rapid rate of change?(1 point)
Responses y=6(2x) y is equal to 6 times open paren 2 to the x th power
Hey, I just need my answer checked.
Simplify: y to the 4th power times y to the 3rd power y to the 1st power y to the 7th power
What type of power lets a leader obtain obedience from his or her subordinates through threat of punishment or fear?
A.
According to the Pythagorean theorem, which of the following statements below is true for the triangle in the diagram?
(1) a2+4
The Powers of Congress Quick Check
4 of 54 of 5 Items Question Use the chart to answer the question. Expressed power Implied