math
posted by rick
Question: Use logical equivalnces to show that the propositions !p > (q>r) and q > (p v r) are logically equivalent.
I AM SO DAMN CONFUSED!
I tried to solve !p > (q > r) first
and I only got to !p > (!q v r)
I cant see any other rule that would apply after i get that far! Someone with some knowledge please help!

MathMate
You'll need the logical equivalence:
p → q ≡ !p ∨ q
so
!p → (q→r)
≡ p ∨ (!q ∨ r)
From here, use the commutative properties to rearrange the expression and apply the equivalence (of →) again to get the desired result.
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