A mutation has occurred in one chromosome of a spermatogonium. This mutation will show up in how many of the gametes produced from this cell?
Choices:
A. None
B. Two
C. All Four
D. Cannot be determined
I believe it is 2....If the mutation occurs in the spermatogonium it is before duplication of the chromosomes...So then both sister chromatids are mutants and each will end up in one gamete, thus producing 2 sperm cells with the mutated chromosomes (of the 4 total). Is my way of thinking through this correct?
I thought the exact same thing.
Your way of thinking is correct! The correct answer is indeed B. Two.
To further explain, a spermatogonium is a diploid cell undergoing mitosis to produce more sperm cells. When a mutation occurs in one chromosome of a spermatogonium, it means that one of the sister chromatids has the mutation while the other does not. During the process of meiosis in spermatogenesis, the sister chromatids separate, resulting in haploid cells called spermatids.
Since the mutation occurred in only one of the sister chromatids, it means that half of the resulting spermatids will have the mutated chromosome, while the other half will have the normal chromosome. Therefore, out of the four gametes produced from the cell, only two will have the mutation.
In summary, when a mutation occurs in one chromosome of a spermatogonium, it will show up in two out of the four gametes produced from this cell.